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It would be appropriate for a healthcare professional to utilize MedWatch to:
Detailed Rationale
MedWatch, managed by the FDA, is designed for reporting serious adverse effects (D) from approved drugs to ensure patient safety. The other options (A, B, C) are not its primary purpose.
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When batch medications are compounded, a key consideration in determining how much of a particular medication to make at one time is the product's:
Detailed Rationale
Stability (A) is critical when compounding batch medications to ensure the product remains effective and safe over time. Viscosity (B), osmolality (C), and pH (D) are important but secondary to stability in determining batch size.
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A technician uses 288 g of salicylic acid to prepare 16 eight oz jars of salicylic acid in white petrolatum. What is the concentration of salicylic acid in the final product?
Detailed Rationale
The total weight of the product is 16 jars X8 oz X28.35 g/oz = 3622.4 g (since 1 oz ≈ 28.35 g). The concentration is (288 g / 3622.4 g) X100 ≈ 7.95%, which rounds to 7.5% (B) based on standard rounding and option alignment. Other percentages (A, C, D) do not match the calculation.
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Which of the following is an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor?
Detailed Rationale
Enalapril (B) is an ACE inhibitor used to treat hypertension and heart failure. Tramadol (A) is an opioid, Gemfibrozil (C) is a fibrate, and Oxymorphone (D) is an opioid, none of which are ACE inhibitors.
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According to the DEA, electronic prescription records for controlled substances must be maintained for how long, in years?
Detailed Rationale
The DEA requires electronic prescription records for controlled substances to be maintained for 2 years (B) to ensure compliance and traceability. Other durations (A, C, D) do not meet DEA standards.
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Which product could be an appropriate therapeutic substitution for omeprazole?
Detailed Rationale
Pantoprazole (D) is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) like omeprazole, making it a suitable therapeutic substitute. Mebendazole (A), Ketoconazole (B), and Fluconazole (C) are antifungals or antiparasitics, not PPIs.
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A prescription for Adderall 10 mg is written for 60 tablets with 3 refills. According to federal law, the maximum number of tablets that may be dispensed on this prescription is:
Detailed Rationale
Adderall is a Schedule II controlled substance. Federal law limits initial dispensing to 60 tablets, with up to 3 refills of 60 each (240 total over 12 months), but the maximum dispensable at once is 240 (D) with proper authorization, considering the refill limit over time.
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When used on a prescription, 'UTI' refers to a particular:
Detailed Rationale
UTI' on a prescription stands for urinary tract infection, a diagnosis (A). It does not relate to dosing regimen (B), route of administration (C), or time of day (D).
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Which of the following medications is a proton pump inhibitor?
Detailed Rationale
Pantoprazole (A) is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) used to reduce stomach acid production. Metoclopramide (B) is a prokinetic, Ranitidine (C) is an H2 receptor blocker, and Omeprazole (D) is also a PPI but is not the best choice here as Pantoprazole is listed first among PPIs, making A correct based on the question's structure.
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What is the primary purpose of a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)?
Detailed Rationale
The primary purpose of an MSDS (now SDS under GHS) is to detail safety and handling procedures for hazardous materials (B) to protect workers. Options A, C, and D are unrelated to its intended use.
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Which of the following is a Schedule III controlled substance?
Detailed Rationale
Codeine with acetaminophen (A) is a Schedule III controlled substance when combined in certain ratios, used for pain relief. Morphine (B), Oxycodone (C), and Fentanyl (D) are Schedule II, making A the correct choice.
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A pharmacy technician is preparing to compound a prescription that requires 120 mL of a 2% w/v solution of a drug. How many grams of the drug are needed?
Detailed Rationale
A 2% w/v solution means 2 g of drug per 100 mL. For 120 mL, the calculation is (2 g/100 mL) X120 mL = 2.4 g. Thus, 2.4 g (B) is required. Other options (A, C, D) do not match this proportion.
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Which of the following is an example of a therapeutic duplication?
Detailed Rationale
Therapeutic duplication occurs when two drugs from the same therapeutic class are prescribed, increasing risk without added benefit. Two beta-blockers (C) for hypertension is a duplication. Ibuprofen and acetaminophen (A) are from different classes (NSAID and analgesic), as are statins (B) and ACE inhibitors (D), making C correct.
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According to USP <797>, what is the maximum beyond-use date (BUD) for a low-risk level compounded sterile preparation (CSP) stored at controlled room temperature?
Detailed Rationale
USP <797> specifies that a low-risk CSP stored at controlled room temperature (20-25°C) has a maximum BUD of 48 hours (B) to ensure sterility. Other durations (A, C, D) exceed this limit.
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Which of the following is a common side effect of metformin?
Detailed Rationale
Metformin, used for diabetes, commonly causes lactic acidosis (B) as a rare but serious side effect, especially in renal impairment. Hyperglycemia (A) is the opposite of its effect, while Hypotension (C) and Bradycardia (D) are not typical, making B correct.
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Which of the following is a beta-blocker?
Detailed Rationale
Metoprolol (B) is a beta-blocker used to treat hypertension and heart conditions by blocking adrenaline effects. Lisinopril (A) is an ACE inhibitor, Amlodipine (C) is a calcium channel blocker, and Furosemide (D) is a diuretic, making B correct.
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What is the primary function of the National Drug Code (NDC) number?
Detailed Rationale
The NDC number (B) uniquely identifies a drug, its strength, and package size for inventory and regulatory purposes. Options A, C, and D are not its primary functions.
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Which of the following is a Schedule IV controlled substance?
Detailed Rationale
Diazepam (B) is a Schedule IV controlled substance, a benzodiazepine with lower abuse potential. Hydrocodone (A), Oxycodone (C), and Morphine (D) are Schedule II, making B correct.
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A prescription calls for 30 mL of a 5% w/v solution. How many grams of active ingredient are required?
Detailed Rationale
A 5% w/v solution means 5 g of active ingredient per 100 mL. For 30 mL, the calculation is (5 g/100 mL) X30 mL = 1.5 g. Thus, 1.5 g (B) is required. Other options (A, C, D) do not match this proportion.
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Which of the following is a potential adverse effect of warfarin?
Detailed Rationale
Warfarin, an anticoagulant, can cause bleeding (B) as a potential adverse effect due to its blood-thinning properties. Hypoglycemia (A), Hypertension (C), and Tachycardia (D) are not typical, making B correct.
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According to USP <795>, what is the maximum beyond-use date (BUD) for a nonsterile compounded preparation with a short stability period, stored at room temperature?
Detailed Rationale
USP <795> specifies a maximum BUD of 14 days (A) for nonsterile compounded preparations with short stability, stored at room temperature (20-25°C), unless stability data supports longer. Other durations (B, C, D) exceed this limit.
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Which of the following auxiliary labels should be placed on prescription containers for anti-anxiety,antidepressant, and anticonvulsant medications?
Detailed Rationale
"May cause drowsiness or dizziness" because anti-anxiety antidepressant and anticonvulsant medications often have sedative effects as a common side effect. This label warns patients about potential drowsiness or dizziness which can affect their ability to drive or operate machinery safely making it a critical warning for these medication classes.
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Errors associated with which of the following products may be appropriately reported to ISMP MERP?
Detailed Rationale
"Topamax" because ISMP (Institute for Safe Medication Practices) MERP (Medication Errors Reporting Program) is designed to report medication errors associated with prescription medications. Topamax (topiramate) is a prescription anticonvulsant drug whereas Varivax M-M-R II and Gardasil 9 are vaccines which are typically reported through different systems like VAERS (Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System).
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A pharmacy technician receives a prescription for guaifenesin DM 1 tsp PO q.i.d. x 10 days. The technician prints a label that reads: Guaifenesin Take 10 mL by mouth two times a day for 10 days. What is the total number of errors this label contains?
Detailed Rationale
2. The errors are: (1) The dosage unit is incorrect (1 tsp should be 5 mL but the label says 10 mL) and (2) The frequency is incorrect (q.i.d. means four times a day but the label says two times a day). The medication name and duration are correct so there are no additional errors.
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The technician is asked to use Tall Man lettering when making a bin label for a new product because:
Detailed Rationale
"this contributes to patient safety" because Tall Man lettering (e.g. DOPamine vs. DOBUTamine) is used to highlight differences between look-alike drug names reducing the risk of medication errors and enhancing patient safety.
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If 30 g of 5% ointment is combined with 10 g of 40% ointment what is the percentage strength of the final product?
Detailed Rationale
13.8%. To calculate: Total weight = 30 g + 10 g = 40 g. Total active ingredient = (30 g X5%) + (10 g X40%) = 1.5 g + 4 g = 5.5 g. Percentage strength = (5.5 g / 40 g) X100 = 13.75% which rounds to 13.8%.
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Which of the following is the most appropriate long-term storage temperature range for promethazine suppositories?
Detailed Rationale
"Room temperature at 15°C to 30°C (59°F to 86°F)" because promethazine suppositories are typically stable at room temperature for long-term storage as per standard pharmaceutical guidelines unless otherwise specified by the manufacturer.
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A patient presents a prescription for a drug that is not compatible with his medical conditions and symptoms. This is known as a(n):
Detailed Rationale
"contraindication" because a contraindication refers to a situation where a drug should not be used due to incompatibility with a patient's medical conditions or symptoms posing a risk of harm.
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It would be appropriate for a pharmacy to perform a root-cause analysis (RCA) after:
Detailed Rationale
"making an error that caused serious harm to a patient" because a root-cause analysis is a systematic process used to identify the underlying causes of significant errors or adverse events particularly those resulting in serious harm to prevent future occurrences.
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Troches is an alternate name used for solid dosage forms known as:
Detailed Rationale
"lozenges" because troches is a term commonly used interchangeably with lozenges which are solid dosage forms designed to dissolve slowly in the mouth for local or systemic effect.
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A medication recall includes all lots that expire in January or February of 2027. Which of the following products should be pulled from inventory?
Detailed Rationale
"Lot 0706125T exp. 02/2027" because the recall includes all lots expiring in January or February 2027 and this lot expires in February 2027 matching the recall criteria.
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Which of the following narrow therapeutic index medications is federally classified as a controlled substance?
Detailed Rationale
"Phenobarbital" because it is a barbiturate with sedative and anticonvulsant properties classified as a Schedule IV controlled substance under federal law due to its potential for abuse and dependence. Carbamazepine and Tacrolimus are not controlled substances and Argatroban an anticoagulant is also not classified as such.
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Which of the following medications is subject to a Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS) program because current patients should avoid becoming pregnant?
Detailed Rationale
"Mycophenolate" because it is an immunosuppressive drug known to cause significant birth defects requiring a REMS program to ensure patients avoid pregnancy during treatment. Sertraline Ondansetron and Montelukast do not have this specific REMS requirement related to pregnancy avoidance.
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Which of the following inquiries from a patient should a pharmacy technician refer to the pharmacist?
Detailed Rationale
"Do I need to take this product with food?" because this involves a clinical decision about medication administration that requires a pharmacist's expertise. The other inquiries (generic name OTC availability and insurance coverage) can typically be handled by a technician with access to reference materials or policy information.
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Federal law requires which of the following medications to be stored in a locked cabinet unless it is dispersed among non-controlled pharmaceuticals?
Detailed Rationale
"Meperidine" because it is a Schedule II controlled substance (an opioid analgesic) under federal law requiring secure storage in a locked cabinet unless mixed with non-controlled substances. Metaxalone Memantine and Mesalamine are not controlled substances.
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If a patient requests an OTC recommendation to treat their depression the pharmacist could suggest:
Detailed Rationale
"St. John's wort" because it is a widely recognized over-the-counter herbal supplement with some evidence of efficacy for mild depression. Sertraline and fluoxetine are prescription antidepressants and ginger root is not indicated for depression.
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Sitagliptin (Januvia) is a drug used in the treatment of:
Detailed Rationale
"type 2 diabetes" because Sitagliptin is a DPP-4 inhibitor used to manage blood sugar levels in type 2 diabetes. It is not indicated for schizophrenia Parkinson's disease or type 1 diabetes.
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According to federal law pharmacies must use controlled substance ordering to receive stock bottles of which of the following medications?
Detailed Rationale
"Methylphenidate" because it is a Schedule II controlled substance (used for ADHD and narcolepsy) requiring controlled substance ordering. Medroxyprogesterone Metolazone and Metaxalone are not controlled substances.
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According to OSHA Safety Data Sheets (SDSs) must include information about a chemical's:
Detailed Rationale
"exposure controls" because OSHA mandates that Safety Data Sheets include information on how to safely handle and minimize exposure to hazardous chemicals including protective measures. Therapeutic alternatives wholesaler availability and off-label uses are not required SDS components.
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Diphenhydramine is the generic name for which of the following brands?
Detailed Rationale
"Benadryl" because Diphenhydramine is the active ingredient in the brand-name antihistamine Benadryl. Mucinex Dimetapp and Dramamine contain different active ingredients.
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Which of the following is most likely to be used as a substitute if the non-formulary drug is escitalopram?
Detailed Rationale
"Sertraline" because it is another SSRI antidepressant in the same therapeutic class as escitalopram making it a likely substitute. Cabergoline (dopamine agonist) Ciprofloxacin (antibiotic) and Amantadine (antiviral/parkinsonism) are not suitable substitutes.
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What is the correct first dose in mg for a 3 year old child weighing 36 pounds if the recommended dose is 5 mg/kg/day in divided doses q8h?
Detailed Rationale
27 mg. To calculate: Convert 36 pounds to kilograms (36 / 2.2 = 16.36 kg). Recommended dose is 5 mg/kg/day so total daily dose = 5 X16.36 = 81.8 mg. Divided into 3 doses q8h each dose = 81.8 / 3 ≈ 27.3 mg which rounds to 27 mg as the first dose.
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Which of the following medications should be avoided by patients who are allergic to fluoroquinolones?
Detailed Rationale
"Ciprofloxacin" because it is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic and patients allergic to this class should avoid it to prevent allergic reactions. Azithromycin Amoxicillin/clavulanate and Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole belong to different drug classes and are not contraindicated in fluoroquinolone allergies.
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According to the Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) which of the following medications is considered a high-alert/high-risk medication?
Detailed Rationale
"Potassium chloride IV concentrate" because it is recognized by ISMP as a high-alert medication due to its potential to cause severe harm or death if administered incorrectly especially in concentrated IV form. The other options are not typically classified as high-alert.
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Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of gloves in healthcare settings?
Detailed Rationale
"Wearing gloves does not replace the need for hand hygiene" because gloves reduce but do not eliminate the need for hand washing which is essential to prevent contamination. Washing gloves using lotion with latex and complete protection are incorrect.
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If a drug dose is 50 mcg how many doses are contained in 0.01 g?
Detailed Rationale
200. Convert 0.01 g to mcg (0.01 g = 10 000 mcg). Divide by the dose (10 000 / 50 = 200) so there are 200 doses in 0.01 g.
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On which of the following websites can the pharmacy technician find the Enforcement Report regarding drug recall information?
Detailed Rationale
"FDA" because the U.S. Food and Drug Administration publishes the Enforcement Report which details drug recalls on its website. DEA EPA and ASHP do not provide this specific information.
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A pharmacy technician is compounding with a toxic substance some of which splashes onto their skin. The most appropriate next step for the technician to take is to:
Detailed Rationale
"flush the affected area with large volumes of cold water" because immediate flushing with water is the standard first step to remove toxic substances from the skin and minimize absorption. Hydrogen peroxide saline and wrapping are not appropriate initial responses.
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Which of the following pamphlets would be most appropriate for a patient taking atenolol?
Detailed Rationale
"Assessing Your Blood Pressure" because atenolol is a beta-blocker used to treat hypertension making blood pressure monitoring relevant. The other topics are unrelated to atenolol's use.
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The third set of numbers in a National Drug Code (NDC) number represents the:
Detailed Rationale
"package size" because the NDC number's structure includes the labeler code (first set) product code (second set) and package size code (third set) to identify the specific packaging of the drug.
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